KCET Biology Examination 2021 Paper
KCET Biology Examination 2021 Paper
- Identify the incorrect statement
1. Speciation is generally a function of time
2. Tropical environment is less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable
3. Solar energy contributes to high productivity
4. Temperate regions have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3
c) Only 4
d) 3, 4
Ans. c
2. The correct equation depicting species area
relationship is
a) log logC logA S Z
b) log log logA C S Z
c) log log log A C Z S
d) log log log Z C S A
Ans. a
b) 1 q;2 r;3 p
c) 1 r;2 p;3 q
d) 1 r;2 q;3 p
4. Identify the correct statement/s about ex situ conservation. Advance ex situ conservation includes.
I. Cryopreservation of gametes
II. Plant tissue culture method
III. Seed bank
IV. In vitro fertilisation
a) Only II
b) I & II
c) I, II, III, IV
d) None of these
5. The concept of “Contagium vivum fluidum”
was given by
a) D.J. Ivanowsky
b) W.M. Stanley
c) M.W. Beijerinek
d) R.H. Whittaker
6. Identify the odd one out.
a) Ustilago
b) Alternaria
c) Colletotrichum
d) Trichoderma
7. The plant body having holdfast, stipe and frond is a characterstic of
a) Laminaria
b) Volvax
c) Gelidium
d) Porphyra
Ans. a
8. Identify the correct statement/s regardingclass aves.
1. Forelimbs are modified into wings and hindlimbs are modified for walking and swimming.
2. Heart completely four chambered.
3. They are homeotherms
4. They are oviparous and development is direct.
a) Both 1 and 3
b) Both 1 and 4
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) All are correct
9. Epigynous flower is one in which
a) Ovary is superior and other floral parts are inferior
b) Ovary is inferior and other floral parts are superior
c) All the floral parts are at the same level
d) None of the above
Ans. b
10. The following type of cell junction is not found
in animal tissues
a) Adhering junction
b) Tight junction
c) Gap junction
d) Loose junction
11. A bacterial flagellum is composed of
a) Filament, hook and basal body
b) Vesicles, tubules and lamellae
c) Pili, Fimbriae and filament
d) Hook, tubules and Fimbriae
Ans. a
12. Match the compounds of Column I with their functions in Column II.
Column-I
1) Trypsin
2) GLUT-4
3) Collagen
4) Antibody
a) 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p
c) 1-s, 2-r, 3-p, 4-q
Column-I I
p) Fights infectious agents
q) Is an intercellular Ground substance
r) Works as an enzyme
s) Enables glucose transport into cells.
b) 1-r, 2-s, 3-p, 4-q
d) 1-r, 2-s, 3-q, 4-p
Ans. d
13. The correct sequence of events in prophase I is
a) Synapsis → Crossing over → Chiasmata → Terminalisation
b) Crossing over → Synapsis → Chiasmata → Terminalisation
c) Chiasmata → Synapsis → Crossing over → Terminalisation
d) Chiasmata → Crossing over → Synapsis → Terminalisation
14. The enzyme that is not found is C3 plants is
a) ATP synthase
b) RUBP carboxylase
c) NADP reductase
d) PEP carboxylase
15. Match the location of the cell given in Column, I with its function in Column II.
a) 1-p, 2-r, 3-s, 4-q
b) 1-q, 2-s, 3-q, 4-r
c) 1-r, 2-q, 3-p, 4-s
d) 1-s, 2-p, 3-r, 4-q
16. Identify the incorrect statement/s.
1. Kinetin is a derivative of Adenine which is a pyrimidine.
2. The technique of decapitation is widely used in tea plantations.
3. Ethylene is gaseous plant hormone.
4. Use of GA3 hastens the malting process in brewing industry.
5. ABA is a growth promoter.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) Only 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1 and 5
Ans. d
17. Calculate the cardiac output on an individual having 70 heart beats/min with a stroke volume of 55 ml.
a) 3750 ml
b) 125 ml
c) 3850 ml
d) None of the above
Ans. c
18. In a standard ECG, one of the following functions of its components is not correctly interpreted.
a) P is the contraction of only left atria
b) QRS complex represents ventricular contraction.
c) T is the end of systole.
d) P is the contraction of both atria.
Ans. a
19. Match the hormones of Column I with its function in Column II
Column-I
1. Catecholamines
2. MSH
3. Thymosins
4. Melatonin
a) 1-s, 2-r, 3-q, 4-p
c) 1-q, 2-s, 3-r, 4-p
Column-I I
p) Diurnal rhythm
q) Immune response
r) Pigmentation
s) Stress hormone
b) 1-r, 2-q, 3-s, 4-p
d) 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s
Ans. a
20. How many microsporangia are located at the corners of a typical bilobed anther of angiosperm ?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 1
Ans. b
21. Assertion : In Bryophytes & Pteridophytes the number of male gametes produced is several
thousand times the number of female gametes produced.
Reason : Large number of male gametes fail to reach the female gametes during transport.
a) Assertion is correct but reason in incorrect
b) Both Assertion and reason are correct
c) Both Assertion and reason are incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
22. In the given diagram identify the parts labelled as a, b, c and d.
a) a-Coleoptile, b-Scutellum, c-Pericarp, d-Coleorhiza
b) a-Coleoptile, b-Scutellum, c-Coleorhiza, d-Pericarp
c) a-Pericarp, b-Coleorhiza, c-Scutellum, d-Coleoptile
d) a-Coleorhiza, b-Coleoptile, c-Scutellum, d-Pericarp
23. Consider the following statements & choose the correct answer from the given options. Statement 1 : Innermost layer of microsporangium is tapetum.
Statement 2 : Cells of tapetum posses dense cytoplasm more than one nucleus and nourishes developing pollen grains.
a) Both Statements 1 & 2 are incorrect
b) Both Statements 1 & 2 are correct
c) Statement 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect
d) Statement 1 is incorrect & 2 is correct
Ans. b
24. Identify the correct statements.
a) Only one megaspore present towards chalazal end remains functional.
b) 3 megaspore present towards chalazal end degenerate gradually.
c) Each megaspore mother cell, directly develops into a megaspore.
d) Each female gametophyte is 7-celled & 7- nucleated structure.
Ans. a
25. Which of the following aquatic plant does not show pollination by water.
a) Vallisneria
b) Hydrilla
c) Water hyacinth
d) Zostera
Ans. C
26. Which cell of the female gametophyte is involved in the formation of primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) after fertilization ?
a) Antipodals
b) Synergids
c) Egg cell
d) Central cell
Ans. d
27. In the given diagram of human sperm, identify the functions of the labelled parts. a, b and c.
a) a-Helps in penetration of sperm into ovum,
b-Helps in movement of sperm, c-Provides energy for the movement of sperms into the female reproductive tract.
b) a-Helps in penetration of sperm into ovum,
b-Provides energy for the movement of sperm,
c-Helps in movement of sperm.
c) a-Helps in movement of sperm, b-Helps in penetration of sperm into ovum, c-Provides energy for the movement of sperms
d) a-Provides energy for the movement of sperm, b-Helps in movement of sperm, c-Helps in penetration of sperm into ovum
Ans. b
28. Select the correct path of flow of milk during breast feeding.
a) Mammary tubules – Mammary duct – Mammary ampulla – Lactiferous duct – Alveoli
b) Mammary tubules – Mammary duct – Lactiferous duct – Mammary ampulla – Lactiferous duct
c) Alveoli – Mammary tubules – Mammary ampulla – Mammary duct – Lactiferous duct
d) Alveoli – Mammary tubules – Mammary duct – Mammary ampulla – Lactiferous duct
Ans. d
29. Under the influence of oxytocin which layer of
the uterus exhibits strong contractions during
parturition ?
a) Endometrium
b) Myometrium
c) Perimetrium
d) Botha A and C
Ans. b
30. Select the incorrect statement about contraceptives
a) They are regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive health.
b) They have a significant role in checking uncontrolled growth of population.
c) They are practised against a natural reproductive events like conception of pregnancy.
d) The possible ill-effects like nausea, abdominal pain, irregular menstrual bleeding or even breast cancer should not be totally ignored
Ans. a
31. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum is called
a) GIFT
b) ZIFT
c) ICSI
d) IVF-ET
Ans. c
32. Match the Column I with Column II and find the correct answer
a) 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-
b) 1-r, 2-p, 3-q, 4-s
c) 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-r
d) 1-s, 2-r, 3-p, 4-q
Ans. c
33. The genotype of a husband and wife are IA IB & IA IO. Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes & phenotypes are possible ?
a) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
b) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
c) 4 phenotypes ; 3 genotypes
d) 4 phenotypes ; 4 genotypes
Ans. b
34. What is the possible blood group of children whose parents are heterozygous for A and B blood groups?
a) A, B only
b) A, B, AB & O
c) AB only
d) A, B & AB only
Ans. b
35. Match the Column- I with Column – II
a) i-p, ii-q, iii-r, iv-s
b) i-p, ii-q, iii-s, iv-r
c) i-s, ii-r, iii-q, iv-p
d) i-s, ii-r, iii-p, iv-q
Ans. d
36. Which among the following characters selected by Mendel in a pea plant is a recessive character?
a) Inflated (full) pod
b) Green pod colour
c) White flower
d) Axillary flower
Ans. c
37. Match the scientists of Column – I with their contributions in Column – II
c) i-r, ii-p, iii-s, iv-q
Ans. c
38. In which region of the t-RNA molecule is the
amino – acid binding site located?
a) 5 ‘ end
b) anticodon loop
c) 3 ‘ end
d) None of the above
Ans. c
39. E.coli fully labelled with 15 N is allowed to grow in 14 N medium. The two strands of DNA molecule of the first generation bacteria have
a) Same density resemble with their parent DNA
b) Same density but do not resemble with their parent DNA
c) Different density but do not resemble with their parent DNA
d) Different density but resemble with their parent DNA
40. Experiments involving use of radioactive thymidine to detect distribution of newly synthesized DNA in the chromosome was performed on which plant?
a) Vicia faba
b) Pisum Satirum
c) Cocus nucifera
d) Antirrhinum
Ans. a
41. If the sequence of nucleotides in a temperate stand of DNA is 3’ ATGCTTCCGAAT 5’ write the sequence in the corresponding region of the transcribed m-RNA
a) 5’ – TAC GAA GGC CTT – 3’
b) 5’ – UAC GAA GGC UUA – 3’
c) 3’ – UAC GAA GGC UUA – 5’
d) 3’ – TAC GAA GGC CTT – 5’
Ans. b
42. Pneumonia is caused by
a) Streptococcus pneumonia
b) Haemophilus influenza
c) Both A and B
d) None
Ans. c
43. The development of quick immune response in a person infected with deadly microbes by administering preformed antibodies is
a) Active immunity
b) Cell-mediated immunity
c) Innate immunity
d) Passive immunisation
44. Which is the most feared property of malignant
tumors?
a) Neoplasty
b) Metastasis
c) Rapid invasive growth
d) Loss of contact inhibition
45. Identify the techniques useful in detecting the cancers of internal organs
a) CT b) MRI
c) Radiography
d) All of the above
46. Which among the following plants is a source of drug which is native to America?
a) Papaver somniferum
b) Erythroxylum coca
c) Cannabis sativa
d) Atropa bellodona
47. The technology of biogas production was developed in India due to the efforts of
a) KVIC
b) IARI
c) CDRI
d) Both A and B
48. Which among the following products of microbes is not obtained from fungi?
a) Penicillin
b) Statins
c) Swiss cheese
d) Cyclosporin-A
Ans. c
a) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
b) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
c) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
d) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
50. Taq polymerase that find its application in PCR
is obtained from
a) Thermus aquaticus
b) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
c) Bacillus thuringiensis
d) Salmonella typhimurium
51. Rop-gene which codes of the proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid BR322 in E.coli is located at restriction site of
a) Hind III
b) EcoRI
c) Pvu II
d) BamH I
52. Rapid antigen test and RT.PCR are the two diagnosis test for Covid 19 virus PCR a molecular diagnostic tool, stands for
a) Polymerase chain reaction
b) Polymerase chain reagent
c) Physiological chain reaction
d) Physiological chain reagent
53. Which of the following diagnostic tools allows detection of very low concentration bacterium or viruses by amplifying their nucleic acid?
a) ELISA
b) PCR
c) Autoradiography
d) r-DNA technology
Ans. b
54. Silencing of a gene could be achieved through the use of
a) Short interfering RNA (RNAi)
b) Antisense RNA
c) By both A & B
d) None of the above
Ans. c
55. a-1 antitrypsin is
a) an antacid
b) an enzyme
c) used to treat emphysema
d) used to treat arthritis
56. Identify the correct statement/s from the following.
1. Cuscuta is a chlorphyllous endoparasite
2. the human liverfluke needs only one host to complete its life cycle
3. The life cycle of endoparasite is more completed due to their extreme specialisation
4. During the course of evolution the host bird’s eggs have evolved to resemble the eggs of the parasitic bird.
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 4
c) Only 3
d) 1, 3 & 4
57. Relate Column I with Column II with regard to predatory behaviour
Column-I
2. Pisaster
3. Monarch butterfly
4. Frogs
Column-I I
P. Invertebrates
q. Distasteful
r. Cryptically coloured
s. Cardioglycoside
a) 1-s, 2-p, 3-r, 4-q
b) 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4-r
c) 1-q, 2-s, 3-p, 4-r
d) 1-r, 2-p, 3-q, 4-s
58. Small mammals and birds are rarely found in polar regions. The reason is that
a) They have a larger surface area relative to their volume
b) They tend to again heat very fast
c) They expend less energy to generate body heat
d) None of the above
Ans. a
59. Identify the incorrect statement
a) CAM plants close their stomata during daytime
b) Seals have a thick layer of fat to reduce body heat
c) Lizards bask in the sun during winter
d) Tribes living in high altitude have the same RBC count as people living in the plaits
Population size keeps changing depending on different factor/s such as
a) Food availability
b) Predation pressure
c) Adverse weather
d) All of the above